Free CompTIA A+ 220-1001 Practice Test

This is a free A+ practice test 220-1001 also known as Core 1. The A+ Core 1 exam contains five Main Domains covering mostly hardware and networking content. Click the link for the complete A+ 220-1001 exam objectives. Below free A+ practice test questions reflect these new A+ 220-1001 exam objectives.

Free A+ Practice Test Study Guide

If you are studying for the A+ Exams, check out our free A+ Study guide for exams 220-1001 and 220-1002, it covers every last A+ 1001 & 1002 exam objective as well as all the sub-objectives.

Free A+ Practice Test: 25 BONUS QUESTIONS!

We have just updated this free A+ practice test 220-1001 by adding another 25 questions past the below first 10 questions so make sure to scroll all the way down!

Understanding the CompTIA A+ Exam

This a 6 – 7 page PDF explaining the CompTIA A+ exam in some detail. Click on the link 5 Steps to A+ Certification Success. It will take you to a form, under “Preferred Certification Track” pick your exam.

Question 1

You are more comfortable working on your laptop as opposed to your 4G tablet. Your laptop is Wi-Fi capable. What would you add to your laptop to allow you to stay connected while traveling?

          a) Bluetooth

          b) Wi-Fi extender

          c) Cellular card

          d) GPS

Explanation: Adding a cellular card to your laptop would enable you to use the cellular network for communication. Bluetooth would not add any consistent connectivity. A Wi-Fi extender does not have the range to support travel. GPS will only enable you to track your laptop.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.1“Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components.”

Question 2

You have upgraded your laptop and find that it no longer fits the docking station you used for home to office portability. Which solution would you find most efficient?

          a) Return laptop with one that fits the dock

          b) Replace the docking station with a port replicator

          c) Enable UPnP

          d) Any of these would be efficient

Explanation: Docking stations have been largely replaced in favor of port replicators. A port replicator takes advantage of USB capabilities and does not require the laptop to be locked into the docking station. Returning the laptop would be highly inefficient and finding a new laptop with the correct fit is no simple task. UPnP could work but would require peripheral device upgrades. UPnP could also lead to a potential security risk. So the correct answer is: Replace the docking station with a port replicator.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.3“Given a scenario, use appropriate laptop features.”

Question 3

You are replacing a hard disk and want to get the best performance possible from a standard magnetic HDD. Which rotational speed would you choose on your new hard disk?

          a) 10,000 rpm

          b) 15,000 rpm

          c) 17,000 rpm

          d) 54,000 rpm

Explanation: 15,000 rpm is the fastest actual rotational speed from a standard magnetic HDD. 10,000 rpm is slower than 15,000 rpm and 17,000 rpm and 54,000 rpm hard disks do not exist. While SSD technology is becoming more affordable and is faster than magnetic hard disks, SSD technology is not an option in this question.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 3.0 – Hardware
Sub-Objective: 3.4“Given a scenario, select, install and configure storage devices.”

Question 4

You are looking at high-performance SSD storage for your new Ultrabook. Your solution should be PCIe compatible and use the non-volatile memory express controller in order to utilize the available motherboard slot. Which of these options is the best choice?

          a) SATA 2.5

          b) M.2

          c) NVMe M.2

         d) None of these meets both requirements

Answer: NVMe M.2

Explanation: NVMe M.2 meets your PCIe and non-volatile memory express controller requirements listed above in the question. M.2 offers substantially higher performance. Connecting M.2 to the PCIe bus and the NVMe (non-volatile memory express) controller will provide the highest performance the system will support.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 3.0 – Hardware
Sub-Objective: 3.4“Given a scenario, select, install and configure storage devices.”

Question 5

You are setting up a conference room to support 15 users who usually work on the same floor as the conference room. You have been given a wireless router to make sure everyone has a solid connection. In order to ensure the minimum disruption to their service, what service would you disable on the new router?

          a) DNS

          b) SMTP

          c) DHCP

          d) NFS

Explanation: Since all of the users are in the same general area, it is best to leave as much of their network configuration information unchanged as possible. As you know the router and the client use DHCP to negotiate IP address leases based on signal strength and quality. So by design, the client will negotiate with the server a few feet away over its normal configuration. This could cause problems with any statically assigned devices that the new router is not configured for. The answer is DHCP.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 2.0 – Networking
Sub-Objective: 2.1“Compare and contrast TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purposes.”

Question 6

IP addresses that are assigned to a node each time it connects to the network are called ____ IP addresses.

          a) Dynamic

          b) Static

          c) Variable

          d) Reserved

Explanation: A DHCP server assigns IP addresses to client computers every time they request it. The computer that participates in a network asks for its IP address at startup. This is very often used in enterprise networks to reduce the configuration effort. The correct answer is: Dynamic

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 2.0 – Networking
Sub-Objective: 2.6“Explain common network configuration concepts.”

Question 7

The internal 802.11b/g Wireless network card on your new laptop needs to be replaced. Which type of device would you expect as a replacement part from the factory?

          a) USB

          b) Mini-PCIe

          c) IEEE1394

          d) Bluetooth

Explanation: The mini-PCIe slot is an internal laptop connection. It is usually accessed through a small access panel. USB and PCMCIA 802.11b/g adapters are available, but these are external devices. The correct answer is Mini-PCIe.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.1“Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components.”

Question 8

You are at a customer site and have been asked to configure a second monitor on a laptop computer. You go to the display properties and ____________.

          a) Click on monitor 2 and select Extend My Desktop

          b) Select the dual monitor tab and configure Dual monitor Mode

          c) Select the Adapter Tab and set Dual monitor status to On

          d) Click on Monitor 1 and drag to monitor 2

Explanation: To set up dual monitors in Windows 7 you select the Extend My Desktop check box. This allows both monitors to be treated as a single large workspace. When extended the entire display area can be utilized and you can drag active windows between them seamlessly. The other options given are not available.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.3“Given a scenario, use appropriate laptop features.”

Question 9

After answering a service call, you find a customer’s computer is dead. Which of the following checks would you perform first?

          a) Check to see if the power supply is functional.

          b) Check the CMOS battery.

          c) Check the AC outlet voltage.

          d) Check for excessive EMI.

Explanation: Never overlook the obvious! Perform problem determination by checking all connections first, and that includes power connections. If you find that the PC is plugged in, then your next step would be to verify the power supply as that also could cause a dead computer. Because the question asks what you would check first, the correct answer is: Check the AC outlet voltage.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 5.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 5.2“Given a scenario, use the best practice methodology to resolve problems.”

Question 10

A user cannot log into the local area network or get to the internet over the LAN. Other users in the same area are not experiencing any problems. First, you log in as the user with her username and password from your workstation and do not experience any problems. Next, you attempt to log in from the user’s workstation with either her username or yours and cannot log into the network. What is a possible cause of this problem?

          a) Server down.

          b) Insufficient rights to access the server.

          c) Wrong username and password.

          d) Bad workstation patch cables.

Explanation: A bad patch cable is the most probable cause and can be easily checked. The computer is not connecting to the network. Since no other users are having problems you would focus on the PC’s connection itself. You have established that the server is working and validated the user account.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 4.0 – Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Sub-Objective: 4.1“Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.”

This completes our free A+ practice test 220-1001. The first step in preparing for the A+ 220-1001 exam is to familiarize yourself with the exam objectives. Click the link for the complete A+ 220-1001 exam objectives.

25 Bonus questions!

Below are the 25 bonus questions we just added to this free A+ practice test 220-1001.

photo of ATX and Laptop System Boards Comparison

ATX and Laptop System Boards Comparison

 

Question 1

You are replacing the CPU in a laptop. You have properly disassembled it to a point where you can see the motherboard. What is your next logical step?

          a) Remove the board from the case.

          b) Remove the CPU fan assembly.

          c) Disconnect video ribbon cables.

          d) Remove the lid.

Answer: Remove the CPU fan assembly.

Explanation: With the motherboard in view, you can see the CPU fan assembly. It will be attached to the motherboard in several places. Be sure you find all of the mount points and do not bend the assembly.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.1 – “Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components.”

Question 2

When disconnecting the keyboard ribbon cables from the notebook, which is the best method to use?

          a) Gently pull cable straight out without kinking it.

          b) Gently pull up on the connectors retaining latch.

          c) Remove the small screw that holds the ZIF lock down.

          d) Never disconnect these. Simply fold them back and out of your way.

Answer: Gently pull up on the connectors retaining latch.

Explanation: The keyboard ribbon connectors (and others in the notebook) use a Zero Insertion Force socket to secure the connection. It is loosened by lifting the tabs on either side of the socket, or gently working it loose with a small screwdriver.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.1 – “Given a scenario, install and configure laptop hardware and components.”

Question 3

Which touch screen technology uses two sheets of glass separated by spacers?

          a) Passive

          b) Capacitive

          c) Resistive

          d) Resistant

Answer: Resistive

Explanation: Resistive touch screen technology uses two sheets of glass separated by spacers. When pressure is applied to the top sheet of glass, it bends to make contact with the bottom sheet and type the letter or press the button under the point of contact.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.2 – “Given a scenario, install components within the display of a laptop.”

Question 4

Which touch screen technology uses electrodes that sense the conductive properties of skin?

          a) Passive

          b) Capacitive

          c) Resistive

          d) Resistant

Answer: Capacitive

Explanation: Human skin is capable of conducting electricity. Capacitive touch screens use this trait to execute the action the user wishes to perform.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.2 – “Given a scenario, install components within the display of a laptop.”

Question 5

You hibernate your docked laptop at the office to save time when starting it back up at home. When you power it up at home, you discover that while typing emails, some of your keystrokes are misinterpreted by the system. For example, when you type the letter O it appears as a 6 and a P is an *.  What is the quickest way to fix this?

          a) The Function (Fn) Num Lock is on. Turn it off.

          b) Restart the Machine.

          c) In Control Panel assign proper keyboard mapping.

          d) In Device Manager make sure the correct keyboard is listed. Refresh if necessary.

Answer: The Function (Fn) Num Lock is on. Turn it off.

Explanation: The keyboard Num Lock was set to ON by the external keyboard used by the docking station. Hibernation preserved this setting. Although restarting the machine will fix this, it is quicker to simply turn it off.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 1.0 – Mobile Devices
Sub-Objective: 1.3 – “Given a scenario, use appropriate laptop features.”

Question 6

Which Applications level protocol is used to transfer files on the Internet?

          a) Email

          b) FTP

          c) Web browser

          d) Telnet

Answer: FTP

Explanation: File Transfer Protocol (FTP) is a type of protocol supported on the Internet that allows you to easily transfer files from your computer to another computer. To use FTP, you need the address of a server that supports FTP and a client software package that supports FTP running on your computer. This protocol runs in the OSI model Application Layer.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 2.0 – Networking
Sub-Objective: 2.1 – “Compare and contrast TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purposes.”

Question 7

If you are able to use FTP, this verifies which transport protocol is functioning?

          a) IP

          b) IPX

          c) TCP

          d) NWLink

Answer: TCP

Explanation: Remember, FTP also allows for access in both directions. FTP teams up with Telnet to transparently log you on to the FTP server and then provides for the transfer of files. Accessing a host is only the first step. Users must then be subjected to an authentication login that’s probably secured with passwords and usernames placed there by the systems administrator to restrict access.  FTP is part of the TCP/IP stack, and since it is connection oriented, it can verify TCP is functioning.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 2.0 – Networking
Sub-Objective: 2.1 – “Compare and contrast TCP and UDP ports, protocols, and their purposes.”

Question 8

Firewalls are used to ___________.

          a) Protect private networks from attacks on the public side.

          b) Protect the Internet from attacks on the private side.

          c) Both

          d) Neither

Answer: Both

Explanation: A firewall can greatly improve network security and reduce risks to hosts on the subnet by filtering inherently insecure services. As a result, the subnet network environment is exposed to fewer risks, since only selected protocols will be able to pass through the firewall. A firewall also provides the ability to control access to site systems. For example, some hosts can be made reachable from outside networks, whereas others can be effectively sealed off from unwanted access.  Privacy is of great concern to certain sites, since what would normally be considered innocuous information might actually contain clues that would be useful to an attacker. Using a firewall, some sites wish to block services such as finger and Domain Name Service.  If all access to and from the Internet passes through a firewall, the firewall can log accesses and provide valuable statistics about network usage. A firewall, with appropriate alarms that sound when suspicious activity occurs can also provide details on whether the firewall and network are being probed or attacked.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 2.0 – Networking
Sub-Objective: 2.2 – “Compare and contrast common networking hardware devices.”

Question 9

A wireless DMZ is located on which network device?

          a) Firewall

          b) Switch

          c) Hub

          d) Access Point

Answer: Firewall

Explanation: Another idea in implementing security for wireless LAN segments is to create a wireless demilitarized zone (WDMZ). Depending on the level of implementation, creating WDMZs using firewalls or routers can be costly. WDMZs are generally implemented in medium- and large-scale wireless LAN deployments. Because access points are basically insecure and untrusted devices, they should be separated from other network segments by a firewall device.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 2.0 – Networking
Sub-Objective: 2.3 – “Given a scenario, install and configure a basic wired/wireless SOHO network.”

Question 10

Which one of the following does NOT specify equipment that uses the 2.4-GHz ISM band?

a) 802.11

b) 802.11a

c) 802.11b

d) 802.11g

Answer: 802.11a

Explanation: Operation in the UNII bands automatically makes 802.11a devices incompatible with all other devices complying with the other 802.11 series of standards. The reason for this incompatibility is simple: systems using 5-GHz frequencies do not communicate with systems using 2.4 -GHz frequencies.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 2.0 – Networking
Sub-Objective: 2.4 – “Compare and contrast wireless networking protocols.

Question 11

Which SATA standard supports a maximum transfer rate of 600 MBps?

          a) SATA 1.0

          b) SATA 1.5

          c) SATA 2.0

          d) SATA 3.0

Answer: SATA 3.0

Explanation: The SATA 3 interface operates at 6 Gbps however the interface supports up to 600 MB/s (Megabytes per second) throughput.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 3.0 – Hardware
Sub-Objective: 3.1 – “Explain basic cable types, features, and their purposes.”

Question 12

What happens when a second SATA 3.0 device is added to a SATA cable that already contains a SATA 1.5 device?

          a) Errors occur on faster device.

          b) Bus speed reduces to 1.5.

          c) Slower device will not be detected.

          d) It cannot be added.

Answer: SATA 3.0

Explanation: SATA specifications and hardware permit only one device on each SATA cable. Multiple cable connections are available on the SATA controller for expansion.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 3.0 – Hardware
Sub-Objective: 3.1 – “Explain basic cable types, features, and their purposes.”

Question 13

A space-saving fiber optic connector type MTRJ can be used with which of the following cable types?

          a) SMF

          b) MMF

          c) Neither SMF or MMF

          d) Both SMF and MMF

Answer: Both SMF and MMF

Explanation: MTRJ can be used with both SMF and MMF fiber.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 3.0 – Hardware
Sub-Objective: 3.1 – “Explain basic cable types, features, and their purposes.”

Question 14

Which memory type would you use in an upgrade in a modern notebook?

          a) RIMM

          b) DIMM

          c) SD-RIMM

          d) SO-DIMM

Answer: SO-DIMM

Explanation: Today’s notebooks use SO-DIMMs. You may find some legacy equipment that uses SO-RIMMs.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 3.0 – Hardware
Sub-Objective: 3.4 – “Given a scenario, select, install and configure storage devices.”

Question 15

When you purchase a “boxed” processor from Intel, which of the choices below will not be in the kit?

          a) Processor

          b) Cooling Fan

          c) Matched memory

          d) Thermal paste

Answer: Matched memory

Explanation: When a manufacturer uses the term “boxed”, they generally mean everything you would need to install the device. In this case, memory would be separate.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 3.0 – Hardware
Sub-Objective: 3.5 – “Given a scenario, install and configure motherboards, CPUs, and add-on cards.”

Question 16

In this cloud model, services are available to the public over a standard Internet connection.

          a) Public cloud

          b) Private cloud

          c) Community cloud

          d) Hybrid cloud

Answer: Public cloud

Explanation: In a Public cloud, services are available to the public over a standard internet connection. The most recognizable public cloud services are the email services provided by Google and Yahoo.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 4.0 – Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Sub-Objective: 4.1 – “Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.”

Question 17

In this cloud model, a central organization has created a centralized resource that is exclusively available to its employees.

          a) Public cloud

          b) Private cloud

          c) Community cloud

          d) Hybrid cloud

Answer: Private cloud

Explanation: In the Private cloud model, the cloud is hosted on company owned hardware and is accessible only by the company employees.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 4.0 – Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Sub-Objective: 4.1 – “Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.”

Question 18

With this service, you as the customer, rent hardware, including servers, storage, and networking, and can use these hardware services virtually. You are responsible for your own application installations, data management, and backup. Which service category does this describe?

          a) SaaS

          b) IaaS

          c) PaaS

          d) BaaS

Answer: IaaS

Explanation: When IaaS, which stands for infrastructure as a service, is offered the customer rents hardware, including servers, storage, and networking, and can use these hardware services virtually. Customers are also responsible for their own application installations, data management, and backup. IaaS is typically called for in situations where fast-changing applications are in place or to test software. Alternatively this solution is used by startup businesses aiming at saving money by not having to invest in hardware. SaaS is software as a service and is all inclusive. PaaS is platform as a service where customers rent hardware, operating systems, and some applications that could support other applications the customer may install. This solution is popular with software developers as it allows for relatively cheap software testing over multiple platforms. BaaS doesn’t exist and so could stand for Bad answer as a Service.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 4.0 – Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Sub-Objective: 4.1 – “Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.”

Question 19

Cloud computing provides multiple advantages. Which of below elements is BEST described by a service’s ability to be scaled up or down as the needs changes for a particular user without requiring hardware changes that could be costly for the customer?

          a) Resource pooling

          b) Rapid elasticity

          c) Measured Service

          d) On-demand

Answer: Rapid elasticity

Explanation: To some extent all these elements could apply however the question asks for the BEST description. When CompTIA puts BEST in the question that means other answers could make sense but are not the best alternative. In this case since Rapid Elasticity refers to the ability to scale layers of services, such as applications, storage space, or number of users, etc. it is the “winner”. Resource pooling, measured Service, and On-Demand can all imply some level of scalability but none of them as spot on as Rapid Elasticity.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 4.0 – Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Sub-Objective: 4.1 – “Compare and contrast cloud computing concepts.”

Question 20

You have a platform running a secure Windows installation with firewall and anti-malware services. What security will you need in order to install virtual OSes to this platform?

          a) Firewall and anti-malware

          b) Just the firewall

          c) Just the malware

          d) No changes necessary

Answer: Firewall and anti-malware

Explanation: When you install a VMM and VM of a PC, the virtual machines are not protected by the PC’s programs. As a result, each VM needs its own firewall and anti-malware services to be installed.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 4.0 – Virtualization and Cloud Computing
Sub-Objective: 4.2 – “Given a scenario, set up and configure client-side virtualization.”

Question 21

A user has asked you to help them fix their printer. It is a simple paper jam and you resolve it quickly. What should you do next?

          a) Have user verify that the problem is resolved.

          b) Suggest a favor they can do for you.

          c) Nothing, all is well.

          d) Make sure you log the incident.

Answer: Have user verify that the problem is resolved.

Explanation: Regardless of what you believe, the problem isn’t fixed until the user is comfortable that it has been resolved.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 5.0 – Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Sub-Objective: 5.1 – “Given a scenario, use the best practice methodology to resolve problems.”

Question 22

A customer called complaining that his system continuously locks. The problem has persisted for several days. What is the first step in troubleshooting this problem?

          a) Have the user try to recreate the problem

          b) Remove the power and open the system to view any loose or unusual conditions

          c) Reboot the system

          d) Ask the user to create a log of each time the system locks

Answer: Have the user try to recreate the problem

Explanation: Showing the technician exactly what is happening is the best way for the technician to determine the problem.  By the user recreating the problem, the tech will have a better understanding towards problem determination and problem solving.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 5.0 – Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Sub-Objective: 5.2 – “Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.”

Question 23

After answering a service call, you find a customer’s computer is dead. Which of the following checks would you perform first?

          a) Check to see if the power supply is functional.

          b) Check the CMOS battery.

          c) Check the AC outlet voltage.

          d) Check for excessive EMI.

Answer: Check the AC outlet voltage.

Explanation: Never overlook the obvious. Perform problem determination by checking all connections first, and that includes power connections. If the PC is plugged in, a faulty AC outlet would cause a dead computer.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 5.0 – Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Sub-Objective: 5.2 – “Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.”

Question 24

A user reports that their system occasionally boots to a blank screen and sometimes doesn’t respond once the system turns off the monitor. What do you do first to troubleshoot?

          a) Replace video card

          b) Replace monitor

          c) Test system RAM

          d) Check Event Viewer logs

Answer: Check Event Viewer logs

Explanation: First, check the Event Viewer logs to determine the cause of the issue. It is best practice to first perform noninvasive observations before replacing hardware or testing RAM.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 5.0 – Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Sub-Objective: 5.2 – “Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.”

Question 25

You have a customer who calls you to report that her computer shuts down and reboots on its own when she tries to start it. What is one possible cause?

          a) BIOS is set to reboot.

          b) The SCSI CD-RW is using too much power.

          c) The CMOS is configured to cycle.

          d) The power supply is not providing enough power to the system.

Answer: The power supply is not providing enough power to the system.

Explanation: One likely cause of sporadic system reboots could be a malfunctioning power supply. Fluctuations in the voltage would cause reboots.

A+ 220-1001 Main Domain 5.0 – Hardware and Network Troubleshooting
Sub-Objective: 5.2 – “Given a scenario, troubleshoot problems related to motherboards, RAM, CPUs, and power.”

We hope you enjoyed our free A+ practice test 220-1001! For more free content click here for our complete and free A+ study guide!

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